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      03-01-2024, 08:43 PM   #100
Wynnsiensheng
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Quote:
Originally Posted by GerryC View Post
I agree with you. As I mentioned in a post a while back the 34%, 14%, 2% coincide with percentages contained in 1, 2, and 3 sigma normal distributions. The only thing that isn't obvious is when it says 34%, is the split between 1-sigma low and 1-sigma high since they don't publish the overall mean. You'd have to look at enough data points to estimate the 1 to 2 sigma transition values and then estimate the mean.
I’d agree with you, but that would mean pretending that I understood what you just said 😂😂
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